Tuesday, February 28, 2017

Mécanicien de machines Fixes


Mécanicien de machines fixes 3 A avec outils, prêt à recevoir de la job au titre suivant:
- MMF 4B
- MMF 4A
- MMF 3B
- MMF 3A.
- MMF 2B (En prospectif)

Environnement de travail:
- Système d'ammoniaque
- Système de traitements des eaux de tours d'eau
- Système de traitements des eaux de bouilloires
- Système de réfrigération
- Système de Thermopompe
- General troubleshooting sur l'ensemble de réseaux d'une usine.
- Communication de Réseaux Delta
- Installation et entretien des équipements de l'usine.
- Tout autre travail non listé ci dessus.
Taux d'honoraire :  À discuter
Contact : Douglas Tshisumpa
514-245-4737
514-903-4374
douglastsh@hotmail.com
www.mypowerengineer.blogspot.com
QUALITÉS PROFESSIONNELLE
  •  Patience et autonomie
  •  Travail d’équipe
  •  Esprit d’analyse et de synthèse
  •  Esprit critique
  •  Capacité à travailler et à oeuvrer sous pressions
  •   Aptitude Mécanique
  • CHAMPS DE COMPÉTENCES
  •   Utiliser les systèmes de commandes automatisés ou informatiques pour  les machines   fixes et auxiliaires telles ques les chaudières, les générateurs, les pompes, les compresseurs et autres machines pour chauffer, ventiler, climatiser, éclairer et alimenter en énergie les bâtiments, les établissements industriels et les machines de production
  • Mettre le brûleur en service et régler le fonctionnement  ou programmer avec  le software Delta.
  • Surveiller et Inspecter le matériel d’usine, les commutateurs, la robinetterie, les alarmes, les indicateurs et autres instruments afin de mesurer la température, la pression et  déceler les fuites et autres défectuosités du matériel enfin d’effectuer les réparations
  • configurer les contrôleurs de salle de conférence et régler e fonctionnement.
  •  Nettoyer et lubrifier les générateurs, les turbines, les pompes et les compresseurs et effectuer d'autres travaux d'entretien régulier en utilisant des lubrifiants et des outils manuels et électriques et des outils de précision;
  • Entretenir les compresseurs de réfrigération d’Ammoniac, de Fréon et de l’air
  • Préparer un compte-rendu quotidien des activités opérationnelles et des activités de sécurité et d’entretien et rédiger des rapports concernant le fonctionnement de l’usine.
  • Analyser et enregistrer les relevés des instruments et les défectuosités du matériel;  rechercher la cause des problèmes, prendre des mesures correctives et faire des réparations mineures  ou majeures pour éviter les pannes de l'équipement ou des systèmes;

Stationary Jobs

We are servicing and offering the technical supports on the physical equipment such as cleaver Brooks, W&C boilers and all kind of boilers during startup and shutdown, the overall plumbing system, parts, Delta controllers on the basic troubleshooting, as maintenance technician on the plant and other plant related equipment.
For all inquiries please see the Coordinates below.

Member qualification:
Stationary Engineer 3rd Class
Power Engineer 4th Class
Our coordinates are:
www.mypowerengineer.blogspot.com
douglastsh@hotmail.com
514-245-4737
514-903-4374

Monday, February 27, 2017

DNS 24 L

Building Automation network Sensor for DSC, DAC, or DVC
The DNS-24L is used for applications that require one or more low cost, programmable sensors with LCD display and push button control. It is used for the bacnet protocol on the V3 . make sure that the thermostat has a deep switch to manually addressed it.
Features
  • Built-in 10k½ thermistor
  • Optional terminal block for wiring a remote thermistor to the temperature input
  • Optional built-in humidity sensor
  • LINKnet communications
  • Programmable 3-value, 96 segment, LCD display (via GCL+ over LINKnet) with optional backlighting
  • 4 Programmable Buttons (via GCL+ over LINKnet)
  • Optional buttons for fan speed control when used with Delta Fan Coil Controllers (DFC’s)
  • Service port.  

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 141 to 161

 Question 141

Heating coil steam trap recommendations include:C
1. Trap all of the coils from a common header.
2. Type of trap depends on pressure differential and capacity.
3. Pitch condensate piping from trap to heater 21 mm/m.
4. Always install a strainer near the trap inlet.
A) 3 and 4 ONLY
B) 1, 2, and 3 ONLY
C) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 3, and 4 ONLY
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4


Question 142

When using a modulating control valve with an air conditioning steam coil,
ensure that:C
1. the entering air temperature is no lower than -20°C.
2. the valve is correctly sized for the steam load.
3. the valve is of a V-port design for gradual modulation.
4. ensure the control valve is sufficiently oversized.
5. coil and condensate is not lifted to an overhead return.
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
B) 1 and 4 ONLY
C) 2, 3 and 5 ONLY
D) 1, 3, and 5 ONLY


Question 143

Excessively LOW humidity causes:C
1. dry throat and nose membranes.
2. reduced evaporation of moisture on the skin.
3. static electricity build-up.
4. wood furniture and floors to squeak.
5. an excessively warm feeling at normal room temperatures.
A) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
B) 2, 3, and 5 ONLY
C) 1, 3, and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5


Question 144

When air temperature is raised without the addition of water vapour to the
air, the relative humidity will:A
A) decrease
B) not change
C) increase
D) increase or decrease depending on air movement


Question 145

Outside air is - 25°C and is saturated (at -25°C holds a maximum of 0.0005
kg of water vapour/kg of dry air) This air is drawn into a building and is
heated to 22°C (air at 22°C holds a maximum of 0.015 kg of water vapour/kg
of dry air)

What is the relative humidity of the air inside the building?B
A) 0.5%
B) 3.3%
C) 4.5%
D) 10.6%
E) 33%


Question 146

From the health stand-point, the recommended relative humidity for people in
a well-designed building is between:C
A) 65% - 80%
B) 30% - 70%
C) 35% - 50%
D) 20% - 50%
E) 20% - 35%


Question 147

A residential humidifier commonly installed in the supply plenum of a
smaller war air furnace and consisting of a shallow tray partially filled
with water is a:A
A) pan type of humidifier with plates.
B) bypass type humidifier.
C) power type wetted element humidifiers.
D) regenerative type of humidifier.
E) air washer.


Question 148

The humidification capacity rate of a wetted element type humidifier depends
on:A
1. temperature of the passing air.
2. velocity of the passing air.
3. humidity of the passing air.
4. temperature of the water supplied to the tray.
A) 1, 2, and 3 ONLY
B) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
E) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Question 149

When the outdoor temperature falls to below -25°C, the recommended relative
humidity inside a home should be maintained at:D
A) less than 10%
B) greater than 30%
C) greater than 50%
D) a slightly lesser value from where condensation starts to appear on
window glass.
E) at a much greater value from where condensation starts of appear on
window glass.


Question 150

Humidifying units that draw warmer air from the furnace return air plenum,
pass it through a wetted pad and return it to the supply air plenum, are
called: C
A) pan type humidifiers with plates.
B) bypass type humidifiers.
C) power type wetted element humidifiers.
D) regenerative type humidifiers.
E) atomizing type humidifiers.


Question 151

Humidifying units that employ a small fan to draw warmer air from the
furnace return air plenum or from the room, and force the air through a
wetted pad and return the air to the room are called: B
A) pan type humidifiers with plates.
B) bypass type humidifiers.
C) power type wetted element humidifiers.
D) regenerative type humidifiers.
E) atomizing type humidifiers.


Question 152

An atomizing humidifier is typically regulated by: C
A) a timer that controls the spray pump.
B) a humidistat that controls a solenoid valve on the supply water line.
C) a humidistat that controls the spray pump.
D) a timer that controls a solenoid valve on the supply water line.
E) a humidistat that controls the supply fan.


Question 153

The humidifier that causes a fine white dust to settle in ducts and rooms is
the:B
A) power type wetted element humidifier.
B) atomizing humidifier.
C) pan type humidifier.
D) bypass type wetted element humidifier.
E) pan type humidifier with plates.


Question 154

Advantages to using air washers in air conditions systems include their
ability to: E
1. remove tobacco smoke.
2. clean the air.
3. cool the air.
4. dehumidify the air.
5. humidify the air.
A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
B) 2, 3 and 5 ONLY
C) 3 and 5 ONLY
D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 ONLY
E) 2, 3, 4 and 5 ONLY


Question 155

Industrial air washers should be installed at the: A
A) suction side of the supply air fan.
B) discharge side of the supply air fan.
C) suction side of the return fan.
D) discharge side of the return fan.
E) location where it can be most easily serviced.


Question 156

Dehumidification occurs in an air washer when: C
A) the spray water temperature is above the dry bulb temperature of the
passing air.
B) the spray water temperature is above the dew point of the passing air.
C) the spay water temperature is below the dew point of the passing air.
D) the level of the spray water in the sump is dropped to below the set
point.
E) the spray water temperature is below the dry bulb temperature of the
passing air.


Question 157

Identify the spray water temperature control method that is NOT used on an
air washer.D
A) Mixing part of the spray water with make up hot or cold water.
B) Recirculating the spray water through a heat exchanger which can be
either heated or cooled.
C) Heating or cooling the spray water by an immersed heating or cooling coil
in the spray water sump.
D) Varying the spray water header pressure to change the boiling temperature
of the spray water.


Question 158

A steam grid humidifier is typically regulated by a: C
A) timer that opens and closes a steam control valve.
B) humidistat that controls an on-off solenoid valve on the steam line.
C) humidistat that modulates a steam control valve.
D) timer that controls a solenoid valve on the steam boiler supply water
line.
E) humidistat that controls the supply fan.


Question 159

To protect the electric element in a pan type of humidifier, the system
should be equipped with a:C
A) circuit breaker.
B) ground fault interrupter.
C) low water level electric power cut off.
D) high water temperature electric power cut off.
E) high water level electric power cut off.


Question 160

A key function of a comfort air conditioning system is to maintain the space
condition by controlling the: A
A) temperature of the circulated air.
B) temperature of the steam.
C) temperature of the hot water.
D) temperature of the refrigerant.
E) pressure of the refrigerant.


Question 161

To offset the heat gains through a building's exterior shell and from
internal heat sources, an air conditioning system must employ: C
A) a humidifier.
B) a dehumidifier.
C) a cooling source.
D) air recirculation.
E) air filtration.

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 101 to 121


Question 101

In an air conditioning duct system, the most effective location for
installing sound absorbing lining is:B
A) near the terminal devices of the ducts.
B) in the suction and discharge plenum of the fan.
C) in the middle section of a run of the duct.
D) 6 m from where a quiet location is required.
E) at the point the duct enters the controlled space.

Question 102

Fins are employed on air conditioning coils to:B
A) decrease the space occupied by the coil in the duct.
B) increase contact surface area between the air stream and the tubes.
C) achieve a lower pressure drop than bare coils would provide.
D) reduce the cost of coil construction.
E) attenuate the noise in the duct.


Question 103

In air conditioning coils, the extended surface provided by fins is called
___________ surface.A
A) secondary
B) primary
C) bare
D) contact
E) tertiary


Question 104

The two types of finned surfaces used on most modern air conditioning coils
are:D
A) spiral finned and extended finned.
B) continued finned and extended finned.
C) flat finned and extended finned.
D) spiral finned and continuous plate finned.
E) flat finned and continuous finned.


Question 105

Coils with a flat finned surface and in-line tubes:D
A) have a greater pressure drop than other types.
B) are normally used for high temperature (hot deck) applications.
C) have higher heat transfer rates than tubes with more closely-spaced fins.
D) are normally used for low temperature cold storage rooms.
E) cause greater air turbulence than other types of coils.


Question 106

In air conditioning systems, coils with rippled fins and a staggered tube
pattern:C
A) have a lower pressure drop than other types.
B) usually have the fins bonded to the tubes using glue.
C) create more turbulence and improve heat transfer efficiency.
D) are normally used for low temperature cold storage rooms.
E) have a much lower first cost compared to other types.


Question 107

Coils with finned surfaces will experience reduced heat transfer efficiency
when the fins are:B
A) crimped
B) poorly bonded to the tubes.
C) closely spaced.
D) exposed to lower temperatures.
E) exposed to higher air flows.


Question 108

The factor that limits the number of fins that can be placed on an air
conditioning coil is the:E
A) temperature of the steam in the coil.
B) temperature of the chilled water in the coil.
C) material of construction of the fin.
D) face velocity of the coil.
E) resistance to air flow.


Question 109

The fin spacing recommended for chilled water air conditioning coils is
__________ fins per inch.A
A) 8 to 14
B) 4 to 15
C) 3 to 8
D) 4 to 8
E) 2 to 4


Question 110

The fin spacing recommended for steam and hot water heating coils is _____
fins per inch.B
A) 8 to 14
B) 4 to 14
C) 3 to 8
D) 4 to 8
E) 2 to 4


Question 111

The fin spacing recommended for direct expansion freezer coils is _____ fins
per inch.C
A) 8 to 14
B) 4 to 14
C) 3 to 8
D) 4 to 8
E) 2 to 4


Question 112

The provisions that must be followed to obtain the proper performance of a
hot water heating coil include:C
1. counter flow arrangement of air and water.
2. connection of water supply at the bottom of the coil.
3. parallel flow direction of air and water.
4. install air vent at the top of the coil.
A) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY
B) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
D) 3 and 4 ONLY
E) 2 and 4 ONLY


Question 113

The reason efficiency is higher for a counter flow versus a parallel air and
water arrangement in a coil is a:A
A) greater mean effective temperature difference.
B) greater fluid velocity within the coil.
C) greater air velocity over the coil.
D) higher turbulence over the coil.
E) greater internal fluid density due to gravity effect.


Question 114

The coil circuiting design that produces a high heat transfer capacity with
a limited water quantity is the _________ design.B
A) single serpentine
B) half serpentine
C) full circuiting
D) double serpentine
E) triple serpentine


Question 115
The air vent(s) for air conditioning coils must be installed at:
A) the highest point of the supply line and return line.E
B) the highest point of the water coils.
C) the highest point of the radiators.
D) the highest point of any vertical loop.
E) all the above locations.


Question 116

For normal heating applications, the required number of rows for a hot water
coil seldom exceeds ______ rows.E
A) 5 to 8
B) 3 to 8
C) 2 to 8
D) 4 to 6
E) 2 to 3


Question 117

For normal cooling applications, the required number of rows for a coil
seldom exceeds ______ rows.B
A) 5 to 8
B) 3 to 8
C) 2 to 8
D) 4 to 6
E) 2 to 3


Question 118

To prevent carryover of moisture into supply ducts, most cooling
applications require the face velocity be kept between:A
A) 2 to 3 m/s.
B) 2 to 4 m/s.
C) 3 to 4 m/s.
D) 2 to 5 m/s.
E) 3 to 6 m/s.


Question 119

Steam coils in air conditioning systems must:
1. constantly eliminate air.D
2. constantly eliminate condensate.
3. constantly eliminate non-condensable gases.
4. maintain a minimum face velocity.
5. achieve a minimum temperature MED.
A) 3 ONLY
B) 2 and 4 ONLY
C) 2, 3, and 5 ONLY
D) 1, 2, and 3 ONLY
E) 1, 3, 4 and 5 ONLY


Question 120

One of the methods used to provide uniform steam distribution to the
individual tubes of a steam coil is:B
A) use larger-diameter tubes.
B) employ an orifice at the supply end of each tube.
C) use perforated tubes.
D) use shorter tubes.
E) use injector nozzles.


Question 121

One of the methods used to provide uniform steam distribution to the
individual tubes of a steam coil is:D
A) use longer tubes.
B) employ an orifice at the outlet of each tube.
C) use perforated tubes.
D) use distributing plates within the steam header.
E) use vacuum breakers.

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 161 to 189

Question 161

To offset the heat gains through a building's exterior shell and from
internal heat sources, an air conditioning system must employ:C
A) a humidifier.
B) a dehumidifier.
C) a cooling source.
D) air recirculation.
E) air filtration.


Question 162

Dehumidification is necessary not only for the comfort of building
occupants, but also to prevent:D
A) shrinkage of the wood in exterior walls.
B) production of static electricity.
C) frost formation in interior walls during winter months.
D) frost formation in exterior walls during winter months.
E) frost-heaving of basement floors during winter months.


Question 163

The application of an air conditioning system depends on the:
1. geographical location.B
2. type of occupancy.
3. local building code.
4. building layout.
5. National Building Code.
A) 1, 2 and 3 ONLY
B) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 3 and 5 ONLY
D) 1, 2 and 5 ONLY
E) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY


Question 164

When analyzing a building for an air conditioning system, the two most
important considerations include:A
1. Which of the basic requirements must be provide?
2. Which requirements are desirable but not essential?
3. Which system will cost the least?
4. What is the owner's preference?
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
E) 2 and 5


Question 165

An air handling system located in a single mechanical room that distributes
airconditioned air throughout the building by means of ducts is the
___________ system.A
A) unitary
B) central
C) combined
D) single
E) loop


Question 166

With respect to a central air conditioning system, identify the statement
that is TRUE,C
A) All the controls are in the mechanical room.
B) All the air is conditioned to its final space requirements in the
mechanical room.
C) A supplemental thermostat in each zone may provide for improved zone
temperature control.
D) Conditioned air is always supplied to a single zone.
E) Make-up air is not necessary with modern-day filters.


Question 167

In a combined air conditioning system, the conditioned air supplied from the
mechanical room normally provides:D
A) heating and ventialtion.
B) cooling and humidification.
C) heating and dehumidification.
D) cooling and ventilation.
E) filtration and humidification.


Question 168

The equipment that handles air filtration, air temperature control, air
humidity control, ventilation, and air movement is called a(n):A
A) air handling unit (AHU)
B) air recirc unit (ARU)
C) return air unit (RAU)
D) mixed air unit (MAU)
E) outdoor air unit (OAU)


Question 169

For ventilation, a forced air furnace for a house typically utilizes:A
A) 100% outdoor air.
B) 50% outdoor air and 50% recirculation.
C) a fixed percentage of 10% outdoor air.
D) 100% recirculation air.
E) a variable rate of outdoor air, depending upon time of year.


Question 170

The four (4) possible arrangements of the intake section of an air handling
unit are:D
A) full recirculation, mixed air, exhaust air and supply air.
B) 100% outdoor air, mixed air, exhaust air and fixed percent outdoor air.
C) 100% oudoor air, mixed air fixed percentage outdoor air, and full
recirculation.
D) full recirculation, mixed air, supply air, and fixed percent outdoor air.


Question 171

In air conditioning systems, the type of air intake arrangement in which
"free cooling" is achieved is the:B
A) fixed percentage of outdoor air arrangement.
B) 100% outdoor air arrangement.
C) 100% recirculation arrangement.
D) mixed air arrangement.
E) by-pass air arrangement.


Question 172

In a mixed air system, the outdoor air temperature control uses outdoor air
temperature as a reference to regulate the:A
A) supply air damper and return air damper.
B) supply air damper and mixing air damper.
C) supply air damper, mixing air damper, and relief air damper.
D) mixing air damper and relief air damper.
E) supply air damper only.


Question 173

The outdoor enthalpy control refers to the use of outdoor air enthalpy
content to control ________ air temperature.A
A) return
B) mixed
C) supply
D) exhaust
E) relief air


Question 174

Unitary air conditioning systems are ususally installed for _____________
zone(s).A
A) a single
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five or more


Question 175

A small air conditioning unit with DX coils, condenser, compressor, fans and
control all located in a closed casing that only provides air friltration,
cooling, ventilation and dehumidfication is called a __________ unit.A
A) packaged
B) rooftop
C) window
D) fan coil
E) central conditioning


Question 176

Specially-designed "process cooling units" used to control the environmental
conditons in a computer room are a variation of:D
A) full recirculation units.
B) unit ventilators.
C) window air conditioners.
D) packaged air conditioners.
E) rooftop air handling units.


Question 177

The unitary air conditioning system installed at the exterior wall of each
room of a building with an adjustable duct connected to outdoors for
provision of minimum outdoor air intake is called a:D
A) fan coil unit.
B) heat pump.
C) packaged unit.
D) unit ventilator.
E) full recirculation unit.


Question 178

Advantages to using a central airconditioning system in a larger building
include:B
1. ease of installation.
2. effective control of noise and vibration.
3. lower space requirements for equipment.
4. minimal cost for ductwork.
5. lower equipment initial capital cost per unit output.
A) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY
B) 2 and 5 ONLY
C) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
D) 3 and 5 ONLY


Question 179

A basic forced air furnace installed in most residential homes can provide:
1. humidification.B.?
2. fresh air mixing.
3. air filtration.
4. dehumidification.
5. air heating.
A) 1, 2 and 5
B) 2, 3 and 5
C) 3, 4 and 5
D) 1, 2 and 3


Question 180

Which of the following statements for a forced air system used in a
residential house is FALSE?D
A) Can provide humidification.
B) Can provide cooling.
C) Can provide ventilation.
D) Can provide multizone control.
E) Can provide natural gas heating.


Question 181

In a single zone constant air volume system, space conditions are maintained
by adjusting supply air temperature in response to a thermostat located in
the:A
A) room or return air duct.
B) fresh air duct.
C) outdoor space.
D) mixed air duct.
E) supply air duct.


Question 182

By keeping the supply air temperature for a low velocity terminal reheat
system at 12.5°C year-round, this system:C
A) is low in energy consumption.
B) does not require cooling.
C) is high in energy consumption.
D) can not be applied to multizone temperature control.
E) can effectively regulate humidity.


Question 183

A high velocity terminal reheat system differes from a low velocity system
in the:D
1. supply air temperature.
2. supply air velocity.
3. size of supply air duct.
4. lack of a therminal reheat box.
5. increase fan size.
A) 1, 3 and 5 ONLY
B) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 2, and 4 ONLY
D) 2, 3 and 5 ONLY
E) 1 and 2


Question 184
The central air conditioning system with constant air volume supplied to the
conditioned space which can provide both heating and cooling simutaneously
is called a:B
A) constant air volume, terminal reheat low velocity system.
B) multizone system.
C) constant air volume, terminal reheat high velocity system.
D) single zone system.
E) hot and cold deck system.


Question 185
The space thermostat of each zone on a simple multizone system:A
A) regulates the modulating damper of the mixing compartment.
B) controls the hot water temperature to the coil.
C) controls the chilled water temperature to the coil.
D) controls the mixing box.
E) regulates the total make-up air into the system.


Question 186

The air handling system that has its cooling coils and heating colis
arranged in an offset (parallel) pattern is the:B
A) single zone system.
B) multizone system.
C) variable air volume system.
D) single zone system with reheat.
E) unit ventilator.


Question 187
A dual duct air conditioning system is a modified:C
A) single zone, CAV system.
B) multizone, VAV system.
C) multizone, CAV system.
D) single zone, high velocity system.
E) two-zone VAV system.


Question 188

In a dual duct air conditioning system, the capacity of each duct must be
rated at _____ of the total air flow.E?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 85%
E) 100%


Question 189

The dual duct air conditioning system:A
A) is suitable for small buildings such as schools.
B) provides variable air volume to each zone.
C) employs acoustic insulation in mixing boxes as a standard feature.
D) maintains a hot deck temperature at 12.5°C year-round.
E) is suitable for a single-zone installation.

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 121 to 140

Question 121

One of the methods used to provide uniform steam distribution to the
individual tubes of a steam coil is: D
A) use longer tubes.
B) employ an orifice at the outlet of each tube.
C) use perforated tubes.
D) use distributing plates within the steam header.
E) use vacuum breakers.


Question 122

Short steam coils are not likely to freeze, providing: B
A) there is a steam trap installed.
B) positive drainage of condensate is ensured.
C) the coils are always under vacuum.
D) the tube length is 2.1 m or less.
E) there is 100% outside makeup air.


Question 123

The most effective method to prevent steam coils from freezing is to
select: E
A) steam coils made of copper.
B) shorter tubes.
C) a modulating steam flow control valve.
D) an oversized steam flow control valve.
E) a two-position control valve.


Question 124

Steam coils with long tubes are more likely to freeze when outside air
temperature is : C
A) extremely low, such as -35?C.
B) moderately low, such as -12?C.
C) mild, such as - 2?C. to -1?C.
D) at any temperature below freezing.
E) at a temperature slightly above freezing, such as 4C.


Question 125

The hazard of freeze-up of a steam coil handling a large amount of outdoor
air is minimized by employing: C
A) a steam coil with longer tubes.
B) a vacuum breaker.
C) a preheat coil.
D) an oversized coil.
E) higher temperature steam.


Question 126

When a preheat coil is employed in an air conditioning system, to prevent
overheating the space temperature the mixing air temperature is limited to: D
A) 12.5°C.
B) 14.5°C.
C) 15°C.
D) 18°C.
E) 20°C.


Question 127

To prevent steam coil freeze up, it is recommended that at the full load of
the coil, the pressure of the steam entering should not be less than about: A
A) 68 kPa
B) 52 kPa
C) 41 kPa
D) 35 kPa
E) 10 kPa


Question 128

At full load conditions, the minimum recommended steam pressure at the inlet
of a steam regulating control valve for a steam heating coil is: C
A) 17 kPa
B) 25 kPa
C) 34 kPa
D) 55 kPa
E) 68 kPa


Question 129

The vacuum breaker on the steam coil is installed: A
A) near the inlet of the steam coil, after the steam control valve.
B) near the outlet of the steam coil, ahead of the steam trap.
C) near the outlet of the steam coil, after the steam trap.
D) near the inlet of the steam coil, ahead of the steam control valve.
E) near the inlet of the steam valve and ahead of the steam trap.


Question 130

Which of the following statements about vacuum breakers is FALSE : E
A) They are used to prevent freeze-ups caused by negative pressure in the
coil.
B) Pipe connections of check valves used as vacuum breakers may be left open
to the atmosphere.
C) Pipe connections of check valves used as vacuum breakers may be connected
to the return header.
D) Vacuum breakers are essential for satisfactory functioning of the steam
trap.
E) The vacuum breaker must be installed before the control valve and as near
as possible to the outlet connection of the coil.


Question 131

When using water coils to heat air at sub freezing temperature, it is
important that: C
A) the hot water flow control valve is able to regulate the flow rate.
B) a counter flow air and water arrangement must be maintained.
C) a constant flow of water is fed to the coil at all times.
D) the outside air damper is closed at all times.
E) the hot water flow rate does not exceed 0.p m/s.


Question 132

To prevent the freeze up of a hot water coil used in sub freezing
temperatures, the velocity of air passing over the coil should not exceed: C
A) 15 m/s
B) 7.55 m/s
C) 3.55 m/s
D) 1.55 m/s
E) 0.75 m/s


Question 133

The greatest fears in hot water coil installations handling sub freezing air
are: D
1. excessive pipe expansion and contraction.
2. outside air temperature too low.
3. failure of the circulation pump.
4. water viscosity too high.
5. failure of the heat source.
A) 1, 2, and 3 ONLY
B) 1, 2, and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 3, and 5 ONLY
D) 3 and 5 ONLY
E) 2, and 3 ONLY


Question 134

A flow switch installed on the hot water heating coil of an air conditioning
system is to: D
A) measure the amount of hot water flow.
B) regulate the flow rate.
C) indicate the pump's pumping efficiency.
D) interlock with the fans and outside air dampers for freeze protection.
E) interlock with the pump to prevent air locking.


Question 135

The use of ethylene glycol solution in a heating coil will result in: B
A)better rate of heat transfer.
B) better protection against freezing.
C) reduced frictional losses in the coil and piping.
D) the requirement of a smaller pump with less horsepower.
E) an overall higher system efficiency.


Question 136

The effects of using ethylene glycol in a hot water heating coil include: D
1. a lower heat transfer rate.
2. better protection against freezing.
3. increased friction losses in the coil and piping.
4. a requirement for a larger pump with more horsepower.
A) 1 and 4 ONLY
B) 1 and 3 ONLY
C) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Question 137

On a steam glycol converter, overheating of the glycol may be prevented by
interlocking the steam valve with: A
A) a flow switch in the glycol piping.
B) the relief valve on the glycol piping.
C) a pressure switch on the converter shell.
D) an outdoor air temperature switch.
E) a temperature switch on the glycol inlet piping.


Question 138

To prevent freeze-up of an air conditioning system steam coil, the tubes
should be arranged: C
A) horizontally
B) at a 45?angle.
C) vertically
D) in any manner preferred by the designer.


Question 139

The preferred steam trap for installation on air conditioning heating coils
operating at lower pressures (below 172 kPa) is the _______ type: A
A) float and thermostatic
B) thermodynamic
C) impulse
D) inverted bucket
E) thermostatic


Question 140

The preferred steam trap for installation on air conditioning heating coils
operating at higher pressures (in excess 172 kPa) is the _______ type: D
A) float and thermostatic
B) thermodynamic
C) impulse
D) inverted bucket
E) thermostatic

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 80 to 100


Question 80

The most suitable material for a kitchen exhaust duct is: C
A) rubber-lined aluminium
B) aluminium sheet metal
C) black steel sheet metal
D) fibreglass
E) cement asbestos

Question 81

Ducts of large dimensions must be diagonally creased in order to: A
A) provide stiffness.
B) allow gradual duct size change.
C) decrease duct weight.
D) increase air velocity.
E) decrease air friction in the duct work.
Question 82

To reduce the transmission of noise and vibration from the fan to the
duct: D
A) flexible connections must be provided at fan discharge and suction
openings.
B) the fan casing must be constructed of fibreglass.
C) the duct and the fan must be suspended.
D) the duct and the fan must be bolted together tightly.
E) only scroll-case fans may be used.


Question 83

In an air conditioning duct system, short radius elbows should be provided
with: A
A) turning vanes.
B) mitre elbows.
C) positive lock dampers.
D) flexible connections.
E) joint stiffeners.

Question 84

Seepage into return air ducts furred within the conditioned space will: B
A) increase the amount of air needed to supply the conditioned space.
B) increase the load on the air system in terms of volume of air.
C) increase the static pressure at the fan discharge.
D) noticeably increase the system noise factor.
E) deteriorate the duct's insulation.


Question 85

In an air conditioning system with supply air ducts outside the conditioned
space, how must leakage be included in loss calculations: A
A) It must be added to the calculated room sensible heat load.
B) It need not be considered in the loss calculation.
C) It must be subtracted from the return air duct leakage.
D) It must be added to the return air duct leakage.
E) It must be added to the calculated room specific latent humidity load.


Question 86

A supply air duct has a total length of 100 m, with 70 m in the conditioned
space. What is the percentage of air leakage that must be counted in the
calculation of heat loss for this system: B
A) 30%
B) 10%
C) 7%
D) 3%
E) 2.1%


Question 87

Which of the following statements about leakage from air conditioning ducts
is TRUE: D?
A) The effects of air leakage in supply air ducts are the same as those in
return ducts.
B) Leakage inspection can only be done after the duct is covered in
insulation.
C) Losses from bare supply air ducts within the conditioned space have a
substantial impact on loss calculations.
D) Losses due to air leakage from furred supply air ducts within the
conditioned space can only be evaluated on the basis of judgement.E) Air
leakage varies for
40% to 45%.


Question 88

Semi-rigid fibrous glass blankets are attached to the inside of air
conditioning distribution ducts primarily to: C
A) provide thermal insulation.
B) act as a fire retardant.
C) attenuate airborne noises.
D) stop air leakage in the seams of the duct work.
E) restrict the spread of smoke in event of fire.


Question 89

The factor used to determine the spacing of fasteners and edge treatment of
air conditioning duct liners is the: B
A) fire rating of the duct.
B) velocity classification of the duct.
C) liner materials to be used.
D) type of adhesive to be used.
E) type of fastener to be used.


Question 90

Manual air conditioning duct dampers are used primarily for: C
A) starting and stopping the flow of air.B
B) balancing the airflow.
C) diverting the airflow.
D) modulating the airflow.
E) by-passing the air flow.


Question 91

A mixing box in an air conditioning duct system is an example of a
___________ damper.B
A) manual
B) modulating
C) relief
D) two position
E) fire


Question 92

In air conditioning duct systems, the device that functions similarly to a
check valve is the: D
A) manual damper.
B) modulating damper.
C) two-position damper.
D) relief damper.
E) louver.


Question 93

In air conditioning duct systems, relief dampers are normally used on: D
A) supply air ducts
B) branch air ducts
C) mixing boxes
D) exhaust air ducts
E) return air ducts


Question 94

In air conditioning duct systems, opposed blade dampers are used when: B
A) air mixing is required.
B) air volume regulating is required.
C) air diverting is required.
D) air exhaust is required.
E) air pressure in the duct is too high.


Question 95

The National Building Code specifies that when passing from one fire zone to
another fire zone, fire dampers are to be installed on a building's: A
A) supply and return ducts.
B) return ducts only.
C) supply ducts only.
D) kitchen exhaust ducts only.
E) outside air intake ducts only.


Question 96 Value: 1 Path:

Stationary louvers install in the fresh air intake of an air handling system
serve the functions of: A
1. preventing entry of insects and birds.
2. minimizing snow and water entry.
3. providing pleasing aesthetic requirements.
4. providing tight shut-off in event of fire.
A) 1, 2 and 3 ONLY
B) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY
D) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4


Question 97

The "occupied zone" of an air conditioned space is defined as the space
which is:E
A) occupied by occupants.
B) above 2 m from the floor and 1 m from the walls.
C) filled with conditioned air.
D) within 2 m from the floor and 2 m from the walls.
E) within 2 m from the floor and 1 m from the walls.


Question 98

The process in which conditioned air is distributed into the controlled
space by rapid mixing of supply air and room air is known as:E
A) induction
B) entrainment
C) aspiration
D) injection
E) diffusion


Question 99

In an air conditioning system, the difference between a register and a grill
is that: E
A) a register is installed on the supply air outlet but a grill is installed
on the return air outlet.
B) a register is installed on the wall but a grill is installed on the
ceiling.
C) a register can not direct air flow but a grill can.
D) a register is installed on the return air inlet and a grill is installed
on the supply air outlet.
E) a register can regulate air flow but a grill cannot.


Question 100

Which of the following is NOT a function of terminal air distribution
devices?D
A) Distribute the air to the spaces.
B) Provide uniform space temperatures.
C) Control or counteract the effects of conduction, convection and
radiation.
D) Create local pockets of still air.
E) Provide adequate air motion.

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 41 to 80

Question 41

During winter when the outside temperature drops below -20°C, an air
conditioned space should have a relative humidity of:D
A) 60%
B) 50%
C) 40%
D) 30%
E) 20%


Question 42

During winter when the outside temperature drops - 20°C, a relative humidity
of 50% will:C
A) cause an uncomfortable feeling for most people.
B) result in lower energy consumption.
C) cause excessive static electricity build-up.
D) result in condensation problems.
E) cause problems with electrical equipment.


Question 43

The time for a person's body to adjust when moving between spaces of varying
temperature and humidity is called the:A
A) shock effect
B) thermal variance
C) quench effect
D) temperature/humidity variance
E) thermal load ratio


Question 44

In air conditioned spaces, the comfort chart is not directly applicable
when: E
A) the heating method is warm air.
B) used in the southern part of Canada.
C) the heating method is steam.
D) the heating method is hot water.
E) the heating method is radiant heat.


Question 45

To maintain the effective temperature as constant in a controlled space, if
the dry bulb temperature is raised and the relative humidity stays the same,
the air movement should be: C
A) reduced
B) unchanged
C) increased
D) stopped

Question 46

From the group of people listed, the highest effective temperature would be
required for a: D
A) man under 40 years old.
B) man over 40 years old.
C) woman under 40 years old.
D) woman over 40 years old.
E) woman or a man 40 years old.

Question 47

An increased air flow increases the heat loss of the body due to:C
A) convection, radiation, and evaporation.
B) convection, radiation, and conduction.
C) convection, conduction and evaporation.
D) conduction and evaporation.
E) conduction and radiation.

Question 48

In an air conditioned building, factors that may affect the comfort of
people include: A
1. duration of stay of the occupants.
2. physical activities of the occupants.
3. nationality of the occupants
4. age and gender of the occupants.
5. religion of the occupants.
A) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
B) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
C) 3, 4 and 5 ONLY
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ONLY


Question 49
The three kinds of pressure that an operating fan produces are:  B
A) total pressure, velocity pressure, and partial pressure.
B) total pressure, velocity pressure, and static pressure.
C) suction pressure, discharge pressure and total pressure.
D) static pressure, velocity pressure, and suction pressure.
E) total pressure, velocity pressure and suction pressure.


Question 50

In an air conditioning system, the pressure that overcomes the resistance of
the ducts, filters, etc. is ___________ pressure: C
A) velocity
B) total
C) static
D) dynamic
E) partial

Question 51

In an air conditioning duct, the velocity pressure is the pressure over and
above _________ pressure: A
A) static
B) total
C) atmospheric
D) dynamic
E) suction

Question 52

Static pressure of air flowing in a duct can be measured by connecting a
manometer with its measuring tube inlet: D
A)facing the air flow
B) back against the air flow.
C) arranged at any angle
.D)at a right angle to the wall.
E) facing the airflow at a 45?angle.

Question 53

When a constant volume of air flows from a big duct into a small duct
(converging), the velocity of the air will: B
A) decrease.
B) increase.
C) have no change.
D) be determined based on the duct material used.
E) be determined based on the shape of the duct.


Question 54

They type of fan that consists of a rotor or wheel having several radial
blades mounted on a shaft within the fan housing is generally classified
as:  A
A) an axial flow fan.
B) a centrifugal fan.
C) a combination centrifugal/axial flow fan.
D) a ramjet fan.
E) an air eductor.


Question 55

Which of the following is NOT a centrifugal fan: C
A)`Backward inclined fan.
B) Forward curved fan.
C) Propeller fan.
D) Radial blade fan.


Question 56

In a centrifugal fan, the path followed by air: C
A) enters near the centre of the shaft and discharges parallel to the
direction of the shaft.
B) enters from the wheel periphery and exits near the centre of the axis.
C) enters near the centre of the axis flows radially outward and discharges
tangentially to the fan wheel.
D) enters at the centre of the shaft and discharges at the other side of the
shaft.
E) enters from the wheel periphery and exits along the axis.


Question 57

To convert velocity pressure into static pressure, a centrifugal fan housing
is constructed with a _________ shape. A
A) cylindrical
B) triangular
C) rectangular
D) scroll
E) tangential


Question 58

One of the classes of construction that a centrifugal fan is based on is
the: A
A) fan speed in rpm.
B) total pressure developed.
C) horse power consumption.
D) kilowatt rating.
E) static efficiency.


Question 59

A fan that is NOT used for HVAC applications is the: C
A) backward inclined blade fan.
B) forward curved blade fan.
C) backward inclined blade with air foil.
D) radial blade (straight blade) fan.


Question 60

The forward curved centrifugal fan is most suited for moving large volumes
of air:A
A) while operating at low speed.
B) while operating at high speed.
C) with low power consumption.
D) using a variable speed drive.


E) with a high efficiency.

Question 61

Among the type of centrifugal fans, the most energy efficient one is the :
A) radial blade fan. B
B) backward inclined blade fan.
C) forward curved blade fan.
D) backward inclined fan with air foil.
E) propeller fan.


Question 62

Select the statement about a propeller fan that is FALSE.D
A) It can produce high static pressure.
B) It has the ability to move large volumes of air.
C) Power requirement is lowest at maximum air delivery.
D) It is widely used in air-cooled condensers.
E) It is economical for producing large air movements at low pressures.


Question 63

The fan which discharges maximum air delivery at the lowest power
requirement and is used mainly to produce larger air movements at low
pressure is:A
A) the propeller fan.
B) the tube axial fan.
C) the backward inclined blade fan.
D) the forward curved blade fan.
E) the backward inclined fan with air foil.


Question 64

Select the statement about a tube axial fan that is FALSE. D
A) Friction losses are higher than centrifugal fans.
B) It has the ability to move large volume of air.
C) It is suitable for use in industrial air conditioning.
D) It is quite noisy in operation.E) It is widely used in commercial air
conditioning.


Question 65

Properties of the tube axial fan include: A
1. It is suitable for duct mounting.
2. It discharges the air in a spiral motion.
3. It is quite noisy in operation.
4. It has widespread application in commercial air conditioning.
A) 1, 2, and 3 ONLY
B) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
C) 2 and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY
E) 1 and 4 ONLY


Question 66
When comparing the tube axial fan with the vane axial fan the main
difference between the two is the: A
A) noise output
B) location of the fan motor
C) difference in size
D) motion of the discharge air
E) method used to drive the fan


Question 67

Vane axial fans are often used when: C
A) space considerations are important.
B) ease of access to the motor is important.
C) quietness of operation is important.
D) there is no duct system for air delivery.
E) only a small volume of air is required.


Question 68

Which of the following statements about fan performance curves is FALSE?A
A) They are developed from theoretical calculations.
B) The curve is a plot of static pressure against air volume delivery.
C) The curve is a plot of horse power against air volume delivery.
D) The curve is a plot of static efficiency against air volume delivery.
E) The curve range is from shut off to free delivery.


Question 69

When a fan outlet is fully open:B
A) air volume delivery is at a minimum.
B) free air volume deliver exists.
C) power requirements are at a minimum.
D) fan static efficiency is at a maximum.
E) fan static pressure is at a maximum.


Question 70

A non-overloading fan characteristic means that the power curve on the
performance diagram:E
A) maintains almost a horizontal line.
B) continuously rises from shut off to free delivery.
C) rises from shut off to a maximum and then falls off when approaching free
delivery.
D) continuously rises or falls depending upon the air temperature.
E) is maximum at shut off and then falls when approaching free delivery.


Question 71

To account for drive losses and reduction in line voltage, the normal
allowable overload factor for a fan is:B
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
E) 30%


Question 72

When the air distribution system resistance can be determined accurately, a
small fan with _________is often selected:B
A) chain drive.
B) direct drive.
C) V-belt drive.
D) hydraulic drive.
E) gear drive.


Question 73

To minimize vibration problems and premature wearing of a fan's V-belts, use
matched belt sets and:D
A)a properly-designed cooling system.
B) a belt guard.
C) a fluid drive
D) good quality balanced sheaves.
E) a variable speed motor.


Question 74

The drive that relieves the driven fan of shock loading during start-up is
the: A
A) fluid drive
B) V-belt drive
C) variable inlet vane control
D) variable speed motor control
E) outlet damper control


Question 75

The least effective and least expensive method to control air volume moved
by fans is to use: A
A) outlet damper control.
B) variable inlet vane control.
C) fluid drive control.
D) variable speed motor control.


Question 76

Control of a fan's static pressure and horsepower requirements at a given
speed is obtained using:D
A) direct drive.
B) gear drive.
C) outlet damper control.
D) variable inlet vane control.
E) V-belt drive.


Question 77

In designing ductwork, factors to consider include:E?
1. size of the duct versus the frictional losses.
2. size of the duct and the velocity of air in the duct, versus the intended
delivery volume of air.
3. fan power requirement versus the cost of the duct.
4. first cost of the duct versus operating cost.
A) 1, 2 and 3 ONLY
B) 2 and 4 ONLY
C) 3 and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 2, and 4 ONLY
E) 1, 2, 3, and 4


Question 78

The main advantage of a high pressure duct over a low pressure system is:B
A) lower operation cost, i.e. less fan power is required.
B) the relative quietness of air movement.
C) lower initial cost of the air handling apparatus.
D) smaller space requirements.
E) no special control devices are required.


Question 79

The most commonly-used duct material for ventilating air and air
conditioning systems is:A
A) galvanized steel
B) black steel
C) copper
D) fibre glass
E) cement


Question 80

The most suitable material for a kitchen exhaust duct is:
A) rubber-lined aluminium:C
B) aluminium sheet metal
C) black steel sheet metal
D) fibreglass
E) cement asbestos

4th Class Power Engineering Practice Questions competency test 1 to 40

Question 1

Psychometry is a science that studies:B
A) the behaviour of human beings.
B) the behaviour or mixtures of air and watervapor.
C) the prediction of the future.
D) measurement of the molecular composition of air.
E) the mental state of people.


Question 2

Comfort air conditioning, besides controlling air temperature, also involves
the control of the:C
1. moisture content of air
2. density of air
3. cleanliness of air
4. composition of air
A) 1 and 2 ONLY
B) 2 and 3 ONLY
C) 1 and 3 ONLY
D) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
E) 1, 3 and 4 ONLY


Question 3

Air found in nature always:B
1. is pure and dry
2. has moisture in it
3. contains 21% nitrogen in volume
4. has minute amounts of carbon dioxide, hydrogen
A) 1, 3, and 4 ONLY
B) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
C) 2 and 3 ONLY
D) 1 and 4 ONLY
E) 2 and 4 ONLY


Question 4

Humidity is defined as:C
A) the maximum amount of water vapour air can hold.
B) the mass of water vapour per unit volume of air.
C) the presence of moisture in the air.
D) the relative amount of moisture in the air at 30 ?C.
E) the quantity of moisture in liquid phase in the air per unit mass of gas


Question 5

Specific humidity is measured:A
A) in kg of water vapour per kg of dry air.
B) in cubic metres of water vapour per cubic metre of dry air.
C) as percentage of water vapour in the air.
D) as mass of water vapour in dry air.
E) as mass of water per unit volume of air.


Question 6

Absolute humidity is defined as:B
A) the maximum amount of water vapour air can hold.
B) the actual mass of moisture per unit mass of dry air.
C) the water vapour in the ambient air.
D) the relative volume of moisture in the air.
E) the quantity of moisture in liquid phase in the air.


Question 7

Relative humidity is defined as:A
A) the ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a given amount of air
compared to the maximum mass the air can hold at that temperature.
B) the mass of water vapour in the air at a specific dry bulb temperature.
C) the mass of water vapour in the air at a specific wet bulb temperature.
D) the ratio of mass of dry air to the mass of wet air.
E) the ratio of the mass of liquid water in the air to the mass of air.


Question 8
Dalton's Law of partial pressures states that:B
A) for every given pressure there is an opposite pressure.
B) in a mixture of two or more gases each will exert a partial pressure
which is equal to the
pressure that it would exert if it filled that space alone.
C) the partial pressure exerted by two or more gases on the wall of the
containing vessel
is a constant R.
D) the sum of the mass of air and water vapour in a vessel is equal to the
total pressure.
E) water vapour is not included when calculating total air pressure.


Question 9

Dew point temperature is the temperature at which:C
A) dew starts to evaporate in the morning.
B) dew disappears in the morning.
C) water vapour in the air begins to condense.
D) the air reaches the freezing point.
E) water reaches its freezing point.


Question 10

If 50 grams/kg of dry air at 25 ?C represents saturated air, 15 grams of
water vapour/kg of dry air at the same temperature indicates a relative
humidity of:C
A) 3.3%
B) 15%
C) 30%
D) 35%
E) 50%


Question 11

Wet bulb temperature reading:C
A) is determined only when it is raining.
B) is determined when the thermometer is immersed in water.
C) is lower than the dry bulb temperature reading.
D) is the same number as the relative humidity in the air
E) is higher than the dry bulb reading due to the effect of a wetted wick on
the thermometer.


Question 12

The difference between the dry bulb temperature and the wet bulb temperature
is termed:B
A) the dry bulb depression.
B) the wet bulb depression.
C) the humidity depression.
D) the correction factor.
E) the wet/dry factor.


Question 13

Relative humidity is determined using a:D
A) manometer
B) humidistat
C) hydrometer
D) psychrometer
E) dry bulb hydrometer


Question 14

Given a dry bulb temperature reading of 28?C and a wet bulb temperature
reading of 22?C, the relative humidity is: G
A) 50%
B) 54%
C) 58%
D) 60%
E) 62%


Question 15

In air handling equipment calculations, "standard air" refers to dry air
at::C
A) 21?C and in excess of 105.3 kPa.
B) 21?C and 105.3 kPa.
C) 21?C and 101.3 kPa.
D) 25?C and 101.3 kPa.
E) 25?C and less than 101.3 kPa.


Question 16

The unit of measurement for specific volume of air is:C
A) kJ/kg of dry air.
B) kg/kg of dry air.
C) cubic meters/kg of dry air.
D) kg/cubic metre of dry air.
E) cubic metres/cubic metre of dry air.


Question 17

The volume of standard air is _________ cu m/kg of dry air.D
A) 0.533
B) 0.633
C) 0.733
D) 0.833
E) 0.933


Question 18

Enthalpy of an air mixture measures the :D
A) moisture content of the air mixture.
B) sensible heat content of the dry air.
C) latent heat content of the moist air.
D) total heat content of the air mixture.
E) sensible heat content of the air mixture.


Question 19

The heat content of dry air is calculated using the base as:A
A) 0 °C
B) 4 °C
C) 21 °C
D) 25 °C
E) 100 °C


Question 20
The heat content of an air mixture is called:A
A) enthalpy
B) latent heat
C) specific temperature.
D) allotropic content
E) entropy

Question 21

The psychometric chart:B
1. graphically illustrates various properties of air-vapour mixtures.
2. can be used to check the performance of an air conditioning system.
3. is available for different fluids and refrigerants
4. simplifies calculations involving air
A) 1, 2 and 3 ONLY
B) 1, 2 and 4 ONLY
C) 2, 3, and 4 ONLY
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 ONLY


Question 22

On the psychometric chart, the vertical lines are used to indicate:B
A) wet bulb temperature.
B) dry bulb temperature.
C) specific humidity.
D) enthalph.
E) specific volume


Question 23

On the psychometric chart, lines that originate on the left side, along the
saturation line, and slope downward to the right are used to indicate:E
A) wet bulb temperature and relative humidity.
B) enthalpy and specific humidity
C) dew point temperature and specific humidity
D) wet bulb temperature and specific gravity.
E) wet bulb temperature and specific volume.


Question 24
On the psychometric chart, the horizontal lines that originate on the left
side along the saturation line are used to indicate:D
A) wet bulb temperature and relative humidity
B) enthalpy and specific humidity
C) dew point temperature and specific humidity
D) wet bulb temperature and specific humidity
E) dew point temperature and relative humidity


Question 25

The property of air that cannot be determined using a psychometric chart is
the:B
A) dew point temperature
B) partial pressure
C) specific humidity
D) enthalpy
E) specific volume


Question 26

On the psychometric chart, the intersection between a line running
vertically upwards from the dry bulb scale and a line running diagonally
downwards from the wet bulb scale is defined as the:C
A) dew point temperature
B) partial pressure
C) reference point
D) specific volume
E) relative humidity


Question 27

In a process of simply raising the temperature of air without changing its
moisture content, the heat added is:A
A) sensible heat only
B) latent heat only
C) sensible heat and latent heat
D) sensible heat and superheat
E) latent heat and superheat


Question 28

If air is cooled from 38°C dry bulb temperature to 15°C dry bulb temperature
without changing the moisture content, the wet bulb temperature of the air
will:B
A) stay the same
B) increase
C) decrease
D) increase, depending on the wind velocity
E) decrease, depending on the humidity


Question 29

When air is cooled without changing the moisture content, heat added or
removed is called __________ heat.D
A) evaporation
B) condensation
C) latent
D) sensible
E) fusion


Question 30

Sensible heating or cooling, if plotted on the psychrometric chart, is a:C
A) straight vertical line.
B) straight line sloped up from left to right.
C) straight horizontal line.
D) straight line sloped up from the right to the left.
E) curved line sloped up from the left to right.


Question 31

Sensible heating of air will result in a decrease in:B
A) dew point temperature.
B) relative humidity.
C) specific humidity
D) dry bulb temperature.
E) wet bulb temperature.


Question 32

In psychometry, addition of latent heat only to air will cause: C
A) an increase in the dry bulb temperature.
B) a decrease in the dry bulb temperature.
C) an increase in the specific humidity.
D) a decrease in the specific volume.
E) a decrease in the dew point temperature.


Question 33

The single piece of equipment that can be used to cool and humidify the air
is:B
A) an evaporator
B) an air washer
C) a cooling coil
D) a de-humidifier
E) a DX coil


Question 34

Cooling and humidification is also referred to as:D
A) latent cooling
B) sensible cooling
C) solar evaporation
D) evaporative cooling
E) spray humidification


Question 35

Spray water used in cooling and humidification of air: A
A) does not require additional heating or cooling.
B) must be cooled before use.
C) must be heated before use.
D) must have a small amount of sodium chloride added.
E) must have a small amount of calcium chloride added.


Question 36

Which of the following statements about cooling and dehumidification is
FALSE?D
A) Air washers are used to dehumidify air.
B) Air leaving the washer will be close to 100% relative humidity.
C) The spray water carries off the latent heat of condensation of the water
vapour in the air.
D) Dry bulb temperature is increased.
E) Dew point temperature is lowered.


Question 37

In an air conditioning system, ventilation: C
1. provides fresh air to flush out some of the stale air.
2. reduces the load on the air conditioning system.
3. minimizes air infiltration into the building.
4. maintains the building at a positive pressure.
5. provides make-up for exhaust air.
A) 1, 2 and 3 ONLY
B) 2, 3 and 4 ONLY
C) 1, 3, 4, and 5 ONLY
D) 2, 3, 4 and 5 ONLY
E) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5


Question 38

A measure of comfort involving the combined effects of dry-bulb temperature,
relative humidity and air movement is referred to as: C
A) relative comfort zone.
B) effective comfort zone.
C) effective temperature.
D) specific temperature.
E) relative temperature zone.


Question 39

The comfort of human beings is affected by the atmospheric conditions
surrounding them. Which of the following is NOT an atmospheric condition: C
A) temperature
B) relative humidity
C) saturation temperature
D) air cleanliness
E) air movement


Question 40

During summer, an air conditioned space should ideally have a relative
humidity of 50% and a dry-bulb temperature of: D
A) 21.4°C.
B) 22.4°C.
C) 23.4°C.
D) 24.4°C.
E) 25.5°C.

4th Class Power Engineering Part B Ch115- Ch120 Questions & Answers.

CH.115
An advantage of low voltage switching is:
A )  that local and remote control of lights is permitted
B )  the wiring does not require conduits
C )  changes are simple and economical
D )  a and b are correct
E )  a, b and c are correct

The life safety code requires that emergency lighting be provided for means of exit in:
A )  places of assembly of less than 300 people
B )  all occupied spaces indoors
C )  all multiple residence units
D )  all educational and institutional occupancies
E )  office buildings with occupancies of 300 or more people

When designing a lighting system which of the following should be considered?
A )  initial cost
B )  operating cost
C )  maintenance cost
D )  all of the above
E )  none of the above

Most dimmer switches sold today:
A )  divert some current through a variable resistor
B )  can be used with incandescent or fluorescent lighting
C )  save most of the power not being used by the luminaire
D )  can control the lighting level from 0 - 100%
E )  are not cost effective as energy savers

Direct lighting systems:
A )  have a higher initial cost than indirect lighting
B )  have greater glare control
C )  are more energy efficient than indirect lighting
D )  produce shadow free light
E )  blend with the environment

In large buildings approximately what percentage of the electrical load is lighting?
A )  60%
B )  65%
C )  70%
D )  75%
E )  80%

When control for multiple locations is required:
A )  a 4-way switch is used
B )  an off-on switch is used
C )  two 2-way switches are used
D )  three or more one-way switches are used
E )  two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches are used

A luminaire is a:
A )  type of light reflector
B )  type of light refractor
C )  lamp ballast
D )  complete lighting unit
E )  type of lamp

Ambient lighting, can be improved by two types of lighting:
A )  direct and indirect
B )  natural and artificial
C )  fluorescent and incandescent
D )  reflective or refractive
E )  general or local

Occupancy sensors are:
A )  semi-automatic switches
B )  self-regulating switches
C )  automatic switches
D )  modulating switches

E )  packaged switches 

CH.116
The backflow prevention method which consists of two independently acting check valves with an automatic operating pressure differential relief valve located between the two check valves is called:
A )  air gap backflow prevention
B )  double check valve
C )  reduced pressure principal device
D )  atmosphere vacuum breaker
E )  PVB

Which of the following statements about a constant pressure system with Pneumatic Tank is false?
A )  Water entering directly into the pump suction is discharged into pressurised tank.
B )  This system is primarily used in larger buildings.
C )  A system controller automatically starts a standby pump in the event of pump failure.
D )  The system has a pressure regulator to maintain a relatively constant pressure above the water level inside the tank.
E )  Air must continuously be introduced into the tank.

When the maximum building demand for water is always less than the maximum flow available from a municipal or local distribution system which of the following systems can be used?
A )  A constant pressure system with suction tank
B )  A constant pressure system with pneumatic tank
C )  Tankless constant pressure system
D )  A downfeed system
E )  A gravity system

In a circulating hot water system automatic air vents serve which of the following functions?
A )  They cool the water in the storage tank to increase the temperature differential to increase circulation.
B )  They remove air that is released when water is heated.
C )  They supply air to cooling water in the storage tank.
D )  They are required for adequate water aeration.
E )  None of the above.

The system, which has a storage tank above the highest fixture in the system, is called:
A )  an upfeed system
B )  a constant pressure system with suction tank
C )  a tankless constant pressure system
D )  a downfeed system
E )  a direct pressure system

Which of the following is not an element found in a circulating hot water system?
A )  A fire recoil element
B )  Air vents
C )  Heaters
D )  Backflow valves
E )  Return Piping

Which of the following statements about pressure relief valves is false?
A )  The valve may be installed anywhere in the hot water system close to the heater or tank.
B )  The valve must be directly connected to a drain or vent pipe.
C )  The valve is opened by pressure in the line surpassing a preset pressure set on the spring in the valve.
D )  The valve is automatically closed when the water line pressure drops below the spring pressure setting.
E )  None of the above.

Temperature relief devices are effective in eliminating the following problem:
A )  scale build-up in the system
B )  flashing of water into steam when faucets are opened
C )  venting off air released from water during heating
D )  inadequate heating of the water
E )  water stagnation

Which of the following statements about Non-Circulating hot water systems is true?
A )  The systems have a return line.
B )  The systems are used in large residential buildings.
C )  The systems eliminate hot water stagnation.
D )  The systems contain a differential fire recoil element.
E )  The systems force large amounts of water to be wasted before hot water is available in each fixture.

In a circulating hot water system the municipal distribution systems and/or local storage tanks are used for which of the following reasons.
A )  Cold water supply only
B )  Water supply to heaters only
C )  Hot water supply from municipal heating stations
D )  Both cold water and heater water supply
E )  Water meter rationing

CH.117
The blow off valve in a storage heater is used to:
A )  eliminate pressure build-up in the heater.
B )  monitor unsafe temperatures.
C )  release steam should the heater malfunction to avoid flashing of steam in the fixtures.
D )  remove sediment carried to the heater through the water line.
E )  shut off the flow of gas if the flame and pilot light are extinguished.

Corrugations in outside aluminium sheet metal conductors is required to:
A )  increase flow speed of storm water.
B )  decrease potential for blockage.
C )  eliminate corrosion.
D )  allow water flow if there is scale build-up.
E )  permit expansion.

What is the correct sequence, from start to finish, needed to replace a washer in a faucet? 1) Unscrew the packing nut and remove the spindle. 2) If the valve seat is smooth and serviceable, replace the spindle and tighten the packing nut. 3) Remove the washer from the end of the spindle. 4) Shut off the water at the nearest isolation valve. 5) Place the new washer on the end of the spindle.
A )  1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B )  4, 1, 3, 5, 2
C )  5, 4, 3, 2, 1
D )  4, 1, 5, 2
E )  5, 2, 1, 4,

Which of the following has a trap as an integral part of the fixture?
A )  water closet
B )  sink
C )  storm drain
D )  sewer
E )  sump pump

Which of the following statements about footing drains is true?
A )  Installed to prevent an accumulation of groundwater around the building foundations.
B )  Used to reduce the hydrostatic pressure on the walls below ground level.
C )  Perforated or porous pipe is used to collect the water near the footings
D )  The collected water is drained to a remote area or into a sump.
E )  All of the above

Which of the following statements is true?
A )  Branch line connections to the waste stack should be connected at an angle of more than 45 degrees.
B )  The stack vent prevents sewer gas from being vented through the roof.
C )  The stack vent and loop vents allow equalisation of pressure in the system.
D )  In multi-story buildings one stack is used for venting and waste disposal.
E )  Most buildings have several waste and soil stacks with each stack providing drainage for all the sections of the building.

Drain traps serve which of the following purposes: 1) to seal the outlet fixture 2) to prevent backflow of sewer gas 3) to deflect grease and oil for separate disposal
A )  2 only
B )  1 only
C )  both 1 and 3
D )  both 1 and 2
E )  1, 2 and 3

Sewer smells coming from a floor drain in a washroom can be a problem if the floors of the washroom are not cleaned often. Which of the following courses of action is the simplest way to stop the smell from coming out of the drain?
A )  Pour a pail of water in the drain.
B )  Cover the drain opening.
C )  Sanitise the washroom.
D )  Flush the drain with caustic soda.
E )  Improve the washroom's ventilation.

The pounding or banging of pipes and shuddering of fixtures caused by a shock wave resulting from a sudden stop of water flow in a pipe results in which of the following sounds?
A )  chattering of faucets
B )  whistling of faucets
C )  water hammer
D )  hissing in the pipes
E )  creaking of the pipes

Negative pressure in a drainage system may result in which of the following problems?
A )  clogging of drain pipes
B )  scale of build-up in water closets
C )  drawing out of sealing liquids in traps
D )  forcing of sewer gases through traps
E )  collection of sediment in drain traps

CH.118
The heat used to change the state of a substance, is called:
A )  superheat
B )  convection heat
C )  sensible heat
D )  conduction heat
E )  latent heat

The rate at which a system will remove heat from the refrigerated medium is defined as:
A )  coefficient of performance
B )  net refrigerating effect
C )  refrigeration capacity
D )  compression ratio
E )  differential efficiency

Refrigerant mediums will evaporate:
A )  when pressure is increased
B )  when temperature is increased
C )  when they are diluted
D )  when temperature is decreased
E )  when heat is removed

In the case of a simple ice box which of the following heat transfers is correct?
A )  Air loses latent heat, ice does not gain any heat.
B )  Air loses sensible heat, ice does not gain any heat.
C )  Air loses sensible heat, ice gains sensible heat.
D )  Air loses sensible heat, ice gains latent heat.
E )  Air loses latent heat, ice gains latent heat.

Which column in the refrigerant table lists the absolute pressure in kPa?
A )  Column 1
B )  Column 2
C )  Column 3
D )  Column 4
E )  None of the above

The function of the condenser is to:
A )  vapourise the liquid refrigerant
B )  change high pressure refrigerant vapour to liquid
C )  pressurise low pressure refrigerant vapour
D )  vent off vapourised refrigerant
E )  lower the liquid refrigerant pressure

Which of the following statements about low-side pressure and temperature is false?
A )  The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant should be 5 - 10 °C higher than that of the cooled medium.
B )  For a given amount of heat transfer an oversized evaporator can be operated at a higher temperature.
C )  The low side pressure depends on the type of evaporation used.
D )  The evaporation temperature of the refrigerant will be higher if the evaporator lowers the refrigerant pressure.
E )  All of the above.

Which of the following statements about high-side pressure and temperature is true?
A )  The heat flow is from the cooling medium to the hot refrigerant.
B )  The condensing temperature of the vapour is 15 - 20 °C higher than the temperature of the medium used in the condenser.
C )  The condensation temperature of the refrigerant will be lower if the pressure of the vapourised refrigerant is lowered.
D )  The condenser functions by taking latent heat from the surrounding air and adding it as sensible heat to the refrigerant.
E )  None of the above

In the vapour compression type of refrigeration system, the liquid refrigerant is changed to a gas in the:
A )  condenser
B )  charging drum
C )  receiver
D )  compressor
E )  evaporator

The two major types of refrigerating systems are:1. direct2. ammonia 3. indirect 4. Freon
A )  1, 4
B )  2, 3
C )  2, 4
D )  1, 3
E )  3, 4 

CH.119
Ammonia refrigerants:
A )  have high sensible heat capacity
B )  mix well with oil
C )  are very expensive
D )  are well suited for industrial refrigeration
E )  are ideally suited to copper piping systems

The property which has to be known for the calculation of the size of control valve and piping etc, is:
A )  specific volume
B )  enthalpy
C )  refrigerating effect
D )  density
E )  boiling point

Freon 22 refrigerant:
A )  is not miscible with oil
B )  is mostly used in packing plants
C )  is corrosive on copper
D )  is corrosive on aluminium
E )  is a heat transferring medium

R-22 (Freon-22) is nontoxic and nonflammable. Which group does it belong to?
A )  Group A2
B )  Group B4
C )  Group A1
D )  Group A3
E )  Group B2

The refrigerant R-11 belongs to the following group:
A )  group "A2"
B )  group "B1"
C )  group "A3
D )  group "2B"
E )  group "A1" 

The ability of a refrigerant to be dissolved into oil and vice versa is called:
A )  moisture reaction
B )  enthalpy
C )  density
D )  leakage tendency
E )  miscibility

The refrigerant with the highest refrigerating effect per kg of any refrigerant is:
A )  propane
B )  ammonia
C )  carbon dioxide
D )  Freon-22
E )  water

 Which of the following characteristics is common in all of the group B refrigerants?
A )  High toxicity
B )  High flammability
C )  Average Flammability
D )  Low Toxicity
E )  Low flammability

The standard refrigeration cycle is used to compare refrigerants and machines operating under comparable conditions. These standard conditions are:
A )  1030 kPa and atmospheric pressure
B )  30 °C condensing and -15 °C evaporating
C )  30 kPa and atmospheric pressure
D )  -30 °C condensing and 15 °C evaporating
E )  30 kPa and atmospheric temperature

Freon:
A )  is non-toxic
B )  has a strong odour
C )  is explosive when mixed with air
D )  is highly toxic
E )  is prohibited to be used as a refrigerant

CH.120
Which of the following is NOT a component of the low pressure side of the system?
A )  compressor discharge
B )  evaporator
C )  downstream side of the regulating valve
D )  medium to be cooled
E )  all of the above

The temperature in the evaporator:
A )  depends on pressure in the receiver
B )  will decrease when the compressor stops
C )  depends on the pressure in the evaporator
D )  depends on the ambient temperature
E )  is controlled by the charging valve

A compression refrigeration system can be divided into two parts; a high pressure section carrying the head pressure and a low pressure section carrying the ___________ pressure.
A )  discharge
B )  back
C )  hot
D )  return
E )  suction

Raising the condensing point (saturation temperature) of the refrigerant vapour above the temperature of the cooling medium is the function of the:
A )  compressor
B )  condenser
C )  evaporator
D )  absorber
E )  refrigerant

The primary difference between direct and indirect refrigeration systems is the:
A )  type of heat transfer medium
B )  type of refrigerant
C )  evaporator pressure
D )  compressor location
E )  evaporator location

A purpose of a liquid refrigerant control or regulating valve is:
A )  to drain the receiver
B )  to regulate the refrigerant flow to the evaporator
C )  to maintain a constant level in the receiver
D )  to regulate the cooling water to condenser
E )  to isolate the high side from the low side

The brine pump:
A )  circulates the refrigerant through the evaporator
B )  pumps brine through the condenser cooling circuit
C )  circulates the brine through the cooling circuit
D )  maintains the brine level in the cooling circuit
E )  is used to remove heat from the condenser

In actual systems there will be a gradual pressure drop through each side of the system due to:
A )  the economiser
B )  friction in the evaporator, condenser, and piping
C )  decomposition of refrigerants
D )  coefficients of expansion of system components
E )  superheating effects

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a factory assembled packaged refrigerant?
A )  Components are designed to match each other.
B )  Parts can be ordered and installed separately.
C )  The unit is more compact.
D )  Space requirements are minimised.
E )  The unit is equipped with all the required auxiliary equipment.

The heat given up by the brine in the evaporator, must equal the heat:
A )  picked up by the receiver
B )  produced by the compressor
C )  given up by the condenser
D )  gained by the condenser
E )  picked up by the refrigerant